pellicle
Professional Dingbat, Guru and Merkintologist
Hi
so, allow me to get back to this
So
this is pretty clear and obvious ... high INR exacerbates bleeds, and the threshold is "patient dependent" due to factors like differences (and age degredation of the tunica intima (this is the inner layer of the artery wall, and is supported by the internal elastic lamina).
My dad as he aged bled easily and bruised easily, but he was never on warfarin or any "blood thinners". I blame the degredation over time of the above elastic systems.
High INR therefore simply allows a bleed to go longer and thus may unmask any small bleeds that were happening but not noticed before.
Now the threshold of thrombogenesis is a different matter altogether, its the interplay between the time taken for activated thrombin to bind to either a platelet and form a "raft" or to thrombomodulin. This is a receptor protein on the endothelial membrane of blood vessels. By changing the amount of activated thrombin (which is what warfarin does and by (perhaps also) changing the amount of platelets which can be activated (the role that aspirin performs) we then know our clotting tendency. There are of course a "5hitT0n" of genetic variations around this so we can't know it to within a high specificity for a particular person. Thus its a gamble to skirt too close to the lower bounds (and no doubt why the lower bound found in the well known (infamous?) study by On-X. (good reading here)
So rather than just look at "That Graph" I usually post lets as a single thing, lets look at another very similar graph which is discussed well here, that shows two things in one graph too...
We see a reasonably clear situation where early death rates are higher than "mid term" death rates and then death rates again go up over time ... "wear out failures" is probably intended to be applied to machines, but you know our bodies are just big clusters of very tiny molecular machines. This guy does fantastic visualisations of our molecular biology (and I'm pretty sure that if we put in death rates it would be very steep around the 70 year mark).
HTH
so, allow me to get back to this
here's the thing; we don't do studies on things which arebut I haven’t found a good chart that is more recent ( let’s say 2018+)
- well established
- nothing has changed
- there is no funding for
- how many people will benefit from that
- how stable is their anticoagulation therapy drug adherence anyway
- what other compunding factors are there (booze is a big one for increasing INR)
So
and more importantly one that shows the trade off of bleeding vs thrombo just for aortic mech valves.
this is pretty clear and obvious ... high INR exacerbates bleeds, and the threshold is "patient dependent" due to factors like differences (and age degredation of the tunica intima (this is the inner layer of the artery wall, and is supported by the internal elastic lamina).
My dad as he aged bled easily and bruised easily, but he was never on warfarin or any "blood thinners". I blame the degredation over time of the above elastic systems.
High INR therefore simply allows a bleed to go longer and thus may unmask any small bleeds that were happening but not noticed before.
Now the threshold of thrombogenesis is a different matter altogether, its the interplay between the time taken for activated thrombin to bind to either a platelet and form a "raft" or to thrombomodulin. This is a receptor protein on the endothelial membrane of blood vessels. By changing the amount of activated thrombin (which is what warfarin does and by (perhaps also) changing the amount of platelets which can be activated (the role that aspirin performs) we then know our clotting tendency. There are of course a "5hitT0n" of genetic variations around this so we can't know it to within a high specificity for a particular person. Thus its a gamble to skirt too close to the lower bounds (and no doubt why the lower bound found in the well known (infamous?) study by On-X. (good reading here)
So rather than just look at "That Graph" I usually post lets as a single thing, lets look at another very similar graph which is discussed well here, that shows two things in one graph too...
We see a reasonably clear situation where early death rates are higher than "mid term" death rates and then death rates again go up over time ... "wear out failures" is probably intended to be applied to machines, but you know our bodies are just big clusters of very tiny molecular machines. This guy does fantastic visualisations of our molecular biology (and I'm pretty sure that if we put in death rates it would be very steep around the 70 year mark).
HTH