R
rmn
Hi all,
6 weeks out of surgery. The results from my last "blood draw" INR test were 3.8, and the doctor's assistant called to tell me to drop down on the dosage on certain days of the week. However, I told her that two days before her call at my cardiologist's office, a test done with a CoaguChek machine read 3.1. I asked her to please consult with the surgeon again to make sure he still wanted me to drop the dosage given the more recent (lower) test result.
My question is this...if my doctor wants me between 2.5 and 3.0, what is the harm in being in the low 3's periodically or even on a regular basis? Seems like If you're going to be out of the range, isn't being on the high side better?
I've read enough here to know that some docs will have you changing dosage routinely and chasing INRs all over the place. From my newbie point of view, it seems that it's like the old stock market warning - "past performance is no guarantee of future results". Or am I just being naive about this?
Also, someone please correct me... My Rx benefits require Warfarin instead of Coumadin - isn't Coumadin just the brand name of warfarin? I thought they were the same pharmacologically (if that's even a word!).
Thanks
6 weeks out of surgery. The results from my last "blood draw" INR test were 3.8, and the doctor's assistant called to tell me to drop down on the dosage on certain days of the week. However, I told her that two days before her call at my cardiologist's office, a test done with a CoaguChek machine read 3.1. I asked her to please consult with the surgeon again to make sure he still wanted me to drop the dosage given the more recent (lower) test result.
My question is this...if my doctor wants me between 2.5 and 3.0, what is the harm in being in the low 3's periodically or even on a regular basis? Seems like If you're going to be out of the range, isn't being on the high side better?
I've read enough here to know that some docs will have you changing dosage routinely and chasing INRs all over the place. From my newbie point of view, it seems that it's like the old stock market warning - "past performance is no guarantee of future results". Or am I just being naive about this?
Also, someone please correct me... My Rx benefits require Warfarin instead of Coumadin - isn't Coumadin just the brand name of warfarin? I thought they were the same pharmacologically (if that's even a word!).
Thanks