Hi all. My INR recently spiked to 5.2. I couldn't figure out why. Then I remembered that I recently switched out some of my Coumadin with Warfarin because the insurance company no longer covers Coumadin.
So I did a little digging and found this article and this FDA publication.
I had heard that the tolerances for generic drugs are lenient but did not realize how lenient. It turns out that Warfarin can be only 80% as concentrated as Coumadin or as much as 125% as concentrated. This means that if I take 10mg/day (which is actually close to what I take) and then switch to Warfarin, it is conceivable that I am getting the equivalent of as little as 8mg of Coumadin or as much as 12.5mg of Coumadin. And it isn't clear if the Warfarin concentration can change over time without notice (does anyone know?) or if it's different from one generic version of warfarin to another.
So I guess if I have actually been taking 2mg more a day than usual due to switching to Warfarin that could explain my INR spike!
Wow. You'd think the tolerances would be tighter for drugs that have such a narrow therapeutic range.
So I did a little digging and found this article and this FDA publication.
I had heard that the tolerances for generic drugs are lenient but did not realize how lenient. It turns out that Warfarin can be only 80% as concentrated as Coumadin or as much as 125% as concentrated. This means that if I take 10mg/day (which is actually close to what I take) and then switch to Warfarin, it is conceivable that I am getting the equivalent of as little as 8mg of Coumadin or as much as 12.5mg of Coumadin. And it isn't clear if the Warfarin concentration can change over time without notice (does anyone know?) or if it's different from one generic version of warfarin to another.
So I guess if I have actually been taking 2mg more a day than usual due to switching to Warfarin that could explain my INR spike!
Wow. You'd think the tolerances would be tighter for drugs that have such a narrow therapeutic range.