G
Gary Snodgrass
Hello Everbody,
I am writing due to an incident I had over Memorial Day weekend. While out of town I began to have blood present in my urine. Prior to the weekend I noticed that the site of my last blood draw had a bruise and I also got a bruise from my allergy shot. This had not been occurring previously. My coumadin dose had been increased from 35mg/wk to 37.5mg/wk and finally to 42mg/wk. This was in response to my INR being 2.35 at two successive test dates two weeks apart. My INR prior to the bleeding episode was 3.53. I was told by my surgeon's office and my primary care doctor that my INR range is 2.5 - 3.5. They were adamant about this INR range. I have read that the range 3 months post surgery should be 2.0-3.0. Is there an unequivocal range or is this patient dependent? My primary doc said the bleeding is quite common but I have to be honest it was quite upsetting to me. Does anybody know if you have to have an existing lesion somewhere to have blood in in the urine or is it merely a consequence of the "thinness" of the blood which allows it to pass into the urine? I am concerned that my coumadin dosing is not being handled appropriately. Thanks in advance for your thoughts.
I am writing due to an incident I had over Memorial Day weekend. While out of town I began to have blood present in my urine. Prior to the weekend I noticed that the site of my last blood draw had a bruise and I also got a bruise from my allergy shot. This had not been occurring previously. My coumadin dose had been increased from 35mg/wk to 37.5mg/wk and finally to 42mg/wk. This was in response to my INR being 2.35 at two successive test dates two weeks apart. My INR prior to the bleeding episode was 3.53. I was told by my surgeon's office and my primary care doctor that my INR range is 2.5 - 3.5. They were adamant about this INR range. I have read that the range 3 months post surgery should be 2.0-3.0. Is there an unequivocal range or is this patient dependent? My primary doc said the bleeding is quite common but I have to be honest it was quite upsetting to me. Does anybody know if you have to have an existing lesion somewhere to have blood in in the urine or is it merely a consequence of the "thinness" of the blood which allows it to pass into the urine? I am concerned that my coumadin dosing is not being handled appropriately. Thanks in advance for your thoughts.